Old 09-12-2009, 06:54 AM   #1 (permalink)
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Question

Hi everyone,
My wife and I currently live in Nevada, each of us has bought a house prior our marriage, the loan of each house is under individual name (not together because before we married) even now the ownership of these houses are not together. My question is if I let the house which I bought prior our marriage be foreclosured(home loan under my name only) would the bank can put lien on my wife's home (home loan under her name only)? Thanks


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Old 09-12-2009, 08:07 AM   #2 (permalink)
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Re: Question

Welcome to LoanSafe!

No. The contract you have is with you and the bank and she is not a signer or guaranteer on that mortgage.
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Old 09-12-2009, 09:56 AM   #3 (permalink)
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Re: Question

Thanks Moe. I though so but not sure
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