Old 09-09-2009, 03:11 PM   #1 (permalink)
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Paying the first but not the second

Hi. Me again - the one that's not scared about Deutsche bank.

Have a new question. I'm in CA. Have an 80/20 loan on my primary residence. The original loans - no refinancing. The house is worth less than the first mortgage.

I'm thinking that the second is now unsecured; the investor would have little reason to foreclose. I'm thinking of buying myself a little time and only paying the first (which is still more than 40% of my gross) while I continue trying to get a mod. What do you think? Any glaring downsides?


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Old 09-13-2009, 03:10 PM   #2 (permalink)
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Re: Paying the first but not the second

NO LEGAL ADVICE HERE - JUST GENERAL INFORMATION - ANY SIMILARITIES TO ANYONE'S ACTUAL SITUATION IS JUST ONE HECK OF A COINCIDENCE.

When a second mortgage is completely unsecured, it might seem that there is no point in that lender foreclosing. However, California has statutory law(s) which might require the lender to pursue the security first. In practice, though, my firm has seen people not paying their second mortgage for quite a while the lender only slams the credit scores.

- Paul
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Paul J. Molinaro, M.D., J.D.
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Fransen & Molinaro, LLP
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The information contained in this post is NOT to be taken as legal advice. My posts are for general information and educational purposes only. If you need legal advice, please contact an attorney.
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