[Calli09]

Hello all! I found this forum, and finally got the guts to make the "call" yesterday to Chase about requesting a modification. I am not late with pmt yet, but have not worked in 8 weeks due to layoff, and borrowing from Peter to pay Paul. Good credit is allowing me this, and for the time being, I have an excellent credit score, would like to keep it that way, but with things how they are now I knew things were going to be tight this Feb, and made the call. My original loan 30 yr fixed at 7% was purchased by Chase. The rep asked me about my current situation, and when asked about pay, said he wanted net info not gross info. Also asked about utilities, grocerys, car pmts, credit card pmts, etc. I gave him what he asked for and then he put me on hold. He came back and mentioned something about a forebearance, 3 months no late charges, said it would go on the back of the loan, then i would have to be current, then chase does modification of terms later. And then 40 yr loan not 30. I asked him who the investor is on the loan and he said Fannie Mae. I then started to ask him to explain what he just said about the forebearance, as I did not understand then he said he sent my info over and an analyst from "homeowners assist" will call me in 15 - 30 days. I am confused. Also, I am sure in 40 years I will be dead, so the 40 year thing is not gelling with me. Does what he said make sense? I am not sure whether to pay this or not, as I know that by the time its due, I will not have spoken to the analyst, acccording to what I have been reading here. My pmt is due 2-15, then it will be late. I would like a modification of the interest rate, but the forebearance thing is making me wonder how that works? Do they do both forebearance and mod? Or if you do FB, you get no mod. Also, 40 years, him mentioning that right off the bat with my first call is strange not? Any insight would be helpful. Oh, and when all was said and done, the info I gave him had me in the negative money wise. Thank you.